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An "S" to "Yeah"?

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Carteria -  
 PF4 -
Bonsoir ! Je suis ici pour traduire, donc si vous avez besoin de traduire quelque chose, n'hésitez pas à me le faire savoir.

8 answers

  1.
    francksuper Posted messages 2 Status Member 8
     
    In my humble opinion, "Ouais" is a mix between "oui" and "mais"

    Yes but
    Mmmm yes but
    Meh
    => "Ouais"

    However, now we must ask ourselves why there is an S in "Mais"?
    8
  2. tutujaa
     
    Well, simply because that's how it is...( why is there an "s" in "denis" when we don't hear it....) well, that's how it is. xD
    1
    1. Monsieur
       
      There is an 's' in Denis because the feminine form is Denise. It's as simple as that.
      1
    2. LeLoup_35
       

      There is an "h" in "bah"

      0
      1. brucine Posted messages 25262 Registration date   Status Member Last intervention   4 187 > LeLoup_35
         

        Hello to you too,

        We can immediately see the interest in bringing up this topic 13 years later.

        Regarding the initial question, it is generally accepted today that "ouais," which has been attested since the 15th century, derives from "oyez."

        As for "Bah," which is indeed currently spelled with an h, its exact etymology is unknown, although some attribute it to "béer," which has been attested since the 12th century, without an h.

        1
  3. T1000
     
    Yeah, there's an s! :)
    1
    1. Carteria
       
      Thank you, I knew it, the question is for there is one.
      0
  4. LevrayDufo
     
    I was wondering the same thing and I did a little Google search without finding a satisfactory answer. Some say it’s a question of sound, I find this explanation very strange because it’s obviously false - "ai" gives "è" and not "é"... But I have my own idea on the matter. I think that simply, we like to complicate our lives. The French language has a horror of words that are pronounced as they are written and seeks to eliminate them, it’s simply part of our culture. This explanation is worth what it is worth, but frankly, I don't see any other.
    0
    1. Raymond PENTIER Posted messages 58229 Registration date   Status Contributor Last intervention   17 494
       
      No, LevrayDufo: you are completely wrong this time "Some say it's a matter of sound, I find this explanation very strange because it's obviously false - it gives 'ai' and not 'é'". Indeed, in French from France (I don't know about Canada, Belgium, and Switzerland), the opposite is true:
      ai is pronounced closed é (like bédé and j'ai), and not open è (like lait and ouais).
      http://www.academie-francaise.fr/la-langue-francaise/le-francais-aujourdhui

      Similarly, your explanation "The French language hates words that are pronounced as they are written" is very subjective! In reality, modern French results from the fusion of vulgar Latin, ancient Greek, Gaulish, the Oïl dialects, the Occitan dialect, with borrowings from Italian, German, and English.
      Etymology, phonetics, phonology, and pronunciation have influenced spelling since Old French.
      The invention of the printing press contributed to modifying the syntax and the spelling of certain words.
      https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancien_fran%C3%A7ais

      We are far from your assumption...
      1
  6. Marc_8351 Posted messages 9 Status Member
     

    interesting I didn't know

    0
  7. PF4
     

    The word "ouais" is spelled with an "s" because it is a familiar form of "oui." The addition of the "s" at the end is a linguistic evolution that helps to mark a more relaxed and informal intonation. It’s somewhat like a way to make the word sound “cooler” and more laid-back in spoken language.

    0